no third solution

Blogging about liberty, anarchy, economics and politics

Government’s Responsibility for the Health Care Crisis

December 11th, 2008

In the comments at the Reddit thread for my recent post about The Health Care “Crisis”, many people thought that I didn’t thoroughly make my case, that the government caused the crisis. My first thought was, “Why are these people reading Reddit | Libertarian? They must obviously be trolls.”

Perhaps it was not clear, so I will state it here: the purpose of my original post was not to defend the bureaucratic nightmare of American Health Care contra other (more) socialized forms of health care. Given the choice between what we have now, and something that is IMO objectively worse, I’ll keep the status quo, although I would prefer a completely free market.

Most of the complaints seemed to be saying that I didn’t prove my point. I’m convinced that they just didn’t read my post. Reddit user the6threplicant said

This is what I can gather from the article. Since the author can’t actually give good reasons for universal health care …

OK. I guess basic metaphysics, and fundamental, immutable laws of economics aren’t “good reasons.” You got me.

Reddit user daniels220 (who even went so far as to invoke the “from each according to his ability, to each according to his need” screed) said

I can see how the gov’t could have “caused” college tuition to rise, but healthcare costs? Of course you could argue that the cost of getting drugs approved is so high that it drives their prices up, but I’d rather not have stuff that’ll kill me out there, thanks.

I could argue that, but since you can see at least some merit in that, I’ll try not to belabor the point: the fact that R&D is so expensive is simply not because it costs a billion dollars to figure out how not to kill someone. But it’s not just the drugs – it’s the labor. The AMA is essentially a labor cartel that reduces the supply of available physicians, which serves to keep the wages they command and the costs we pay artificially high. Moreover, the lack of health plan portability means that those who are unemployed, or become unemployed, are often without care, and the fact that health insurance is so often tied to a place of employment is a consequence of government price-fixing of wages during WWII.

Topher who commented on my original post, said the following:

According to the Canadian fellow in the office next to mine, health care in fact does work quite adequately in Canada. There may be some delays for non-urgent care, but unlike in the U.S., nobody’s at risk of financial ruin because of health care costs. Exactly what is your basis for saying “inadequate care for everyone else”?

In a nutshell, whenever anyone is forced to wait for care that they could otherwise receive in the absence of government meddling, I deem that level of care to be “inadequate.” Whenever a a bureaucrat (and not the patient) is the arbiter of urgency, I deem that system to be “inadequate.” In short, any system of political rationing is inadequate.

Topher can say “Well, I have anecdotal evidence that it works,” but I have anecdotal evidence that it doesn’t. In talking to a young Canuck about my age, he said he couldn’t afford health care. However, he could afford to go to the Burning Man festival for a week or two, halfway across the continent. And he could afford to sit at the barstool next to me and put down $5 beers. Priorities, eh?

He noted, of course, that people could always go south (to the U.S.) and pay more if they really needed a procedure. This sort of health “tourism” is a fairly new phenomenon, whereby the wealthy are able to circumvent the limitations of their “universal” care, to pay out-of-pocket in another country.

In Canada, some people are finding that they’re being denied treatment (e.g., for cancer meds) that would be “routine” in the U.S.


[A] dramatic new trend in Canadian health-care advocacy: finding the treatment you need in another country, and then fighting Canadian bureaucrats (and often suing) to get them to pick up the tab.

—David Gratzer

In terms of supporting free markets in Health Care, Gratzer is a convert. Growing up in Canada, he thought nothing of the universal program that’s been in place 40-odd years. It wasn’t until he witnessed an EPIC FAIL that he began to doubt the system:

My health-care prejudices crumbled not in the classroom but on the way to one. On a subzero Winnipeg morning in 1997 … the ER overflowed with elderly people on stretchers, waiting for admission. Some, it turned out, had waited five days. The air stank with sweat and urine.

Long waits or “queues”, typical for many procedures in countries with more socialized programs, are indicative of shortages (either of doctors, or of facilities, or both) and shortages are indicative of system failure. A system of universal health care is bound to fail because it attempts to circumvent the laws of economics, viz. scarcity.

To review: scarce resources can be rationed by the price mechanism of the market, or they can be rationed by the politics of pull, special interests, and class warfare. When goods and services are priced below market, they will be demanded in excessive quantities, and generally supplied in sub-optimum quantities. Shortages, and concomitant need for rationing, are an unavoidable consequence of price ceilings.

I do not have reams of empirical evidence to back up my claims, but Gratzer notes that the five-year cancer survival rates in America are significantly higher than they are in e.g., Europe. For instance, “The survival rate for prostate cancer is 81.2 percent here … and down to 44.3 percent in England.” I’ll take my chances with “financial ruin”, if it means I get to live another 5 years, TYVM.

Government is the problem: they cannot bend or break the laws of economics any more than they could invalidate gravity, or thermodynamics. I don’t have fancy charts and graphs or data tables or complex models. I have theory, and the theory is sound.

Free Market Money

December 3rd, 2008

At Samizdata in a thread about the Lakota Bank, commenter llamas says the following, about gold and silver:

For the umpteenth time – gold and silver have no intrinsic value any greater than any other commodity. They are not somehow magically ordained to be ‘real’ money…they are just as easy to manipulate, just as easy to devalue, as any other medium of exchange. Just look at the graphs.(Graphs: 1, 2)


Given the astronomical money supply expansion that has taken place over, e.g., the past 30 years, isn’t it possible (probable!) that the money prices to which he refers are indicative of inflation, and that a not insignificant portion of the rise in prices is reflective of the greater supply of money? I’d reference the CPI from 1800-2007, paying particular attention to the last 100 years or so. Note the big spike when the Fed was created, trending upwards again after WWII and Bretton Woods, and blasting to the motherscratching Moon after Nixon severed any pretense to a gold-peg in 1971 and flooded the world with funny money.

Another commenter, Mastiff says the following about Mises:

Money, at its root, is an obligation for someone else to provide you goods or services in the future. How you keep track of the debt and to what standard you peg it determines its present value on the secondary market (i.e. all of modern currency transactions), but ultimately, money is obligation between persons.

I shudder to think about how someone could’ve so thoroughly misread Mises. I suggest Mastiff start reading The Theory of Money & Credit (PDF) again, starting with page 1.

Money is, at it’s root, a universal or near-universal medium of exchange. I do not feel the need to re-state the Regression Theorem, but suffice it to say that at no point during the historical regression of money as a general medium of exchange, does it ever represent a debt. It is generally given in exchange for goods or services already rendered. In the past. The “money” to which Mastiff refers, is fiat credit money, and fiat money is a pure debt obligation. Ironically, the only type of “money” most of us have ever known.

In a free market, there is no “standard” to which a monetary unit is pegged. One unit of money is the same as any other unit of money. There may be, in the case of money substitutes like banknotes, a standard or several floating standard measures of value, which would be pre-defined by obligations in the form of bailment agreements.

Gold is free market money. It doesn’t have to be, it’s not a metaphysical requirement, and you don’t have to like it. But that doesn’t alter the facts of reality.

On The Labor Theory of Value

December 2nd, 2008

A while back I read parts of Kevin Caron’s Studies in Mutualist Political Economy. A while back. I was particularly interested in his commentary on the labor theory of value.

[T]he labor theory of value is based, not on an inductive generalization from the observed movement of prices, but on an a priori assumption about why price approximates cost, except to the extent to which some natural or artificial scarcity causes deviations from this relationship.

Like Carson, I believe there is a case to be made for an a priori assumption about why price approximates cost, but the conclusion I reach is quite different. The “natural” scarcity is embodied in the supply/demand diagram. Prices will approximate costs (in a free market), all else being equal, because competition makes it so. FSK explains this pretty clearly in The Free Market Labor Arbitrage Process

If labor is underpaid (relative to its fair value), then workers will form competing businesses, arbitraging away the difference.

If labor is overpaid (relative to its fair value), then new workers will enter the industry, again arbitraging away the difference.

In a free market, the costs do not determine the prices, but rather the expectations of prices determine which costs will (or will not) be incurred. To the extent that the entrepreneur is in error, costs will exceed prices. Of course, the costs of production in a free market approach or equal the opportunity cost for the respective productive resources, which are also intimately and inextricably linked to the perceived value to be thereby provided.

Is it true that price (i.e., value of the final good) approximates cost of production? In the long run, yes this is true. But a theory of value needs to speak to more than just long-run trends, does it not? Ultimately, value is determined subjectively and with some uncertainty; it is not determined by the costs of production. Rather, the costs of production are determined by the anticipated value of the output.

I cannot resist the temptation to bring up the ditch-diggers or make-work programs. These things are costly; expensive. But as Bastiat noted over a century ago, they are not valuable. Lest I be accused of setting up straw men, these examples are only fallacious in the sense that such unproductive dispositions of labor and resources are unlikely to occur, and even less likely to persist, in a truly free market. But the fact remains: it doesn’t matter how hard or how long a man works towards a project which others do not value.

One objection might be that the labor costs are determined by labor’s opportunity costs, and so in a free market the labor-theory still holds. But the opportunity costs are also appraisals of the potential future values of whatever else may be produced by labor, and these values are no more certain than the anticipated value of what labor in-fact chooses to produce. No matter which course of action taken by labor, unless the final product is subjectively deemed “valuable” on the market, it’s price will not be sufficient to cover the perceived disutility or discomfort of labor “costs” incurred during its production.

We know or assume to know what value will be produced by a certain amount of labor, and this knowledge guides economic actors in their determination of the prices to be paid for such productive resources. So what we can conclude is that value is the independent variable in the equation, by which final prices are ultimately determined.

Carson continues,

Or to approach it from the opposite direction, we can start with the law of cost as the basis of price, and from there systematically eliminate all the subordinate factors that only have a price because of artificial scarcity, leaving only labor as a creator of exchange-value in its own right (at least for the equilibrium prices of goods in elastic supply).

Although price and cost should tend towards convergence in a truly free market, the important distinction, though, is that labor simply doesn’t “create” or imbue a product with “value”.

Demand, utility, desire, the ability to fulfill needs or satisfy discomfort, these abstract notions are what acting man finds valuable. However true it is that labor is the ultimate “creator of exchange-value in its own right,” but although labor certainly assists in the creation of all things valuable, value (at the terminus) is not determined by the past labor embodied during the production process.

+++

For further reading on the topic, I suggest Bob Murphy’s The Labor Theory of Value: A Critique of Carson’s Studies in Mutualist Political Economy. Murphy restates “the case for the superiority of the marginal, subjective theory versus the labor (or more generally, cost) theory of value” Murphy concludes that “everything true of the cost (labor) theory can be incorporated in the subjective theory of value”.

no third solution

Blogging about liberty, anarchy, economics and politics