no third solution

Blogging about liberty, anarchy, economics and politics

A Question on the Price Elasticity of Lift Tickets

December 6th, 2008

The local ski “resorts” raised their lift prices by $2 or $3 this year. I suppose that’s to be expected, but it’s still a pain in the ass. Fortunately, we’ve had a little bit of snow, I was able to hit the slopes the night before Thanksgiving. I don’t ever remember (in 18 years of skiing/boarding) being able to ride before Thanksgiving. The local hills opened the week before, the bigger resorts up north opened Thanksgiving Day or the day after.

Anyways, I also made it out on the day after Thanksgiving for the evening session at one of the local dirt-hills. The morning pass is good from 10am to 5pm, and the evening pass from 3pm to 10pm, so there is some overlap. As I was leaving the ticket window, I heard some kids trying to extend their morning pass, they were willing to pay extra to stay a few more hours.

A morning pass is $30. An evening pass is $30. An all-day pass is $37, seems like you should be able to upgrade your pass for $7 and a processing fee of some sort, right?

Wrong! You are not able to convert a morning pass to an all-day pass.

This is the policy everywhere I’ve ever shredded, “upgrades” are not available. The only way to extend your lift ticket is by purchasing another, full-price lift ticket. So, you have to pay an additional $30 for something that you could’ve bought (with some foresight) for $7. Of course, almost nobody is willing to do this, and these kids were no exception to the rule.

Which makes me wonder why the policy is as it is. For this policy to be profitable, you’d have to sell one of these full-price tickets to 20% of the people who would’ve bought a regular-priced extension. I sincerely doubt that they sell full-price tickets to even 1% of the people who’d be willing to pay an additional $7.

Effectively, the resorts have set the price of extending one’s lift ticket so high as to completely eliminate any demand for ticket upgrades. “If you’re not willing to give us an additional $30, we don’t want any of your money” is a stupid way to do business when the marginal cost of an additional skier is essentially $0, and especially since many of the local hills are struggling financially over the past few winters.

If they’re not willing to “upgrade” their pass for $7, why not offer an extension for, say, $10 or $15?

Free Market Money

December 3rd, 2008

At Samizdata in a thread about the Lakota Bank, commenter llamas says the following, about gold and silver:

For the umpteenth time – gold and silver have no intrinsic value any greater than any other commodity. They are not somehow magically ordained to be ‘real’ money…they are just as easy to manipulate, just as easy to devalue, as any other medium of exchange. Just look at the graphs.(Graphs: 1, 2)


Given the astronomical money supply expansion that has taken place over, e.g., the past 30 years, isn’t it possible (probable!) that the money prices to which he refers are indicative of inflation, and that a not insignificant portion of the rise in prices is reflective of the greater supply of money? I’d reference the CPI from 1800-2007, paying particular attention to the last 100 years or so. Note the big spike when the Fed was created, trending upwards again after WWII and Bretton Woods, and blasting to the motherscratching Moon after Nixon severed any pretense to a gold-peg in 1971 and flooded the world with funny money.

Another commenter, Mastiff says the following about Mises:

Money, at its root, is an obligation for someone else to provide you goods or services in the future. How you keep track of the debt and to what standard you peg it determines its present value on the secondary market (i.e. all of modern currency transactions), but ultimately, money is obligation between persons.

I shudder to think about how someone could’ve so thoroughly misread Mises. I suggest Mastiff start reading The Theory of Money & Credit (PDF) again, starting with page 1.

Money is, at it’s root, a universal or near-universal medium of exchange. I do not feel the need to re-state the Regression Theorem, but suffice it to say that at no point during the historical regression of money as a general medium of exchange, does it ever represent a debt. It is generally given in exchange for goods or services already rendered. In the past. The “money” to which Mastiff refers, is fiat credit money, and fiat money is a pure debt obligation. Ironically, the only type of “money” most of us have ever known.

In a free market, there is no “standard” to which a monetary unit is pegged. One unit of money is the same as any other unit of money. There may be, in the case of money substitutes like banknotes, a standard or several floating standard measures of value, which would be pre-defined by obligations in the form of bailment agreements.

Gold is free market money. It doesn’t have to be, it’s not a metaphysical requirement, and you don’t have to like it. But that doesn’t alter the facts of reality.

On The Labor Theory of Value

December 2nd, 2008

A while back I read parts of Kevin Caron’s Studies in Mutualist Political Economy. A while back. I was particularly interested in his commentary on the labor theory of value.

[T]he labor theory of value is based, not on an inductive generalization from the observed movement of prices, but on an a priori assumption about why price approximates cost, except to the extent to which some natural or artificial scarcity causes deviations from this relationship.

Like Carson, I believe there is a case to be made for an a priori assumption about why price approximates cost, but the conclusion I reach is quite different. The “natural” scarcity is embodied in the supply/demand diagram. Prices will approximate costs (in a free market), all else being equal, because competition makes it so. FSK explains this pretty clearly in The Free Market Labor Arbitrage Process

If labor is underpaid (relative to its fair value), then workers will form competing businesses, arbitraging away the difference.

If labor is overpaid (relative to its fair value), then new workers will enter the industry, again arbitraging away the difference.

In a free market, the costs do not determine the prices, but rather the expectations of prices determine which costs will (or will not) be incurred. To the extent that the entrepreneur is in error, costs will exceed prices. Of course, the costs of production in a free market approach or equal the opportunity cost for the respective productive resources, which are also intimately and inextricably linked to the perceived value to be thereby provided.

Is it true that price (i.e., value of the final good) approximates cost of production? In the long run, yes this is true. But a theory of value needs to speak to more than just long-run trends, does it not? Ultimately, value is determined subjectively and with some uncertainty; it is not determined by the costs of production. Rather, the costs of production are determined by the anticipated value of the output.

I cannot resist the temptation to bring up the ditch-diggers or make-work programs. These things are costly; expensive. But as Bastiat noted over a century ago, they are not valuable. Lest I be accused of setting up straw men, these examples are only fallacious in the sense that such unproductive dispositions of labor and resources are unlikely to occur, and even less likely to persist, in a truly free market. But the fact remains: it doesn’t matter how hard or how long a man works towards a project which others do not value.

One objection might be that the labor costs are determined by labor’s opportunity costs, and so in a free market the labor-theory still holds. But the opportunity costs are also appraisals of the potential future values of whatever else may be produced by labor, and these values are no more certain than the anticipated value of what labor in-fact chooses to produce. No matter which course of action taken by labor, unless the final product is subjectively deemed “valuable” on the market, it’s price will not be sufficient to cover the perceived disutility or discomfort of labor “costs” incurred during its production.

We know or assume to know what value will be produced by a certain amount of labor, and this knowledge guides economic actors in their determination of the prices to be paid for such productive resources. So what we can conclude is that value is the independent variable in the equation, by which final prices are ultimately determined.

Carson continues,

Or to approach it from the opposite direction, we can start with the law of cost as the basis of price, and from there systematically eliminate all the subordinate factors that only have a price because of artificial scarcity, leaving only labor as a creator of exchange-value in its own right (at least for the equilibrium prices of goods in elastic supply).

Although price and cost should tend towards convergence in a truly free market, the important distinction, though, is that labor simply doesn’t “create” or imbue a product with “value”.

Demand, utility, desire, the ability to fulfill needs or satisfy discomfort, these abstract notions are what acting man finds valuable. However true it is that labor is the ultimate “creator of exchange-value in its own right,” but although labor certainly assists in the creation of all things valuable, value (at the terminus) is not determined by the past labor embodied during the production process.

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For further reading on the topic, I suggest Bob Murphy’s The Labor Theory of Value: A Critique of Carson’s Studies in Mutualist Political Economy. Murphy restates “the case for the superiority of the marginal, subjective theory versus the labor (or more generally, cost) theory of value” Murphy concludes that “everything true of the cost (labor) theory can be incorporated in the subjective theory of value”.

no third solution

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